Showing posts with label Steve Waldman. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Steve Waldman. Show all posts

Friday, June 8, 2018

Evading the next Iranian monetary blockade

Network view of cross-border banking, IMF, Minoiu and Reyes (2011) PDF

I recently blogged at Bullionstar on the topic of the upcoming Iranian monetary blockade.

Many years ago when I was taking a political science class at university, I remember the professor teaching us two criticisms of sanctions. The first is that they don't really work—people can always get around them. And secondly, even if they are so tight that they can't be evaded, sanctions don't change the behaviour of the party being sanctioned.

The Iranian monetary blockade that ran from 2010-2015 seemed to contradict both of these claims. The sanctions were very difficult to evade. And they forced Iran to come to the bargaining table and agree to end their nuclear program in exchange for economic relief. According to the International Atomic Energy Agency, Iran has complied with its promise.

The Trump administration has announced that it is reneging on the nuclear deal and re-imposing sanctions in order to force Iran to agree to a new and stricter terms. Most nations who were signatories remain comfortable with the existing deal. Will the next monetary blockade—the Trump blockade—be as effective as the last one? There's a good chance that it won't.

I refer to Iran sanctions as a monetary blockade because the U.S. banking system is being levered to extract concessions from the rest of the world. Think how large retailers like Walmart force suppliers to sign exclusivity agreements, or face the threat of being cutoff from store shelves. Do business with us, or them, but not both! Suppliers often accept these exclusivity agreements because large retailers like Walmart are too big to abandon.

The U.S.'s first monetary blockade, which ran from 2010-2015, worked along the same principles. Foreign banks in places like Europe were free to continue providing transactions services to Iran, but if they did so they would not be able to maintain correspondent accounts at U.S. banks. To ensure these rules were enforced, U.S. banks were to be fined and U.S. bank executives incarcerated if found guilty of providing accounts to offenders. Fearful bank executives were very quick to comply by carefully vetting those that they offered correspondent banking services to.

Having a U.S. correspondent account is very important to a non-US bank. If a European bank has a corporate customer who wants to make a U.S. dollar payment, the bank's correspondent relationship with a U.S. bank allows it to effect that payment. Since the revenues from U.S. dollar payments far exceeds revenues from providing Iranian agencies and corporations with payments services, a typical European bank would have had no choice but to abandon Iran in order to keep its U.S. correspondent account.

This was a very effective tool. With ever fewer foreign banks willing to facilitate Iranian trade, it became tougher for Iran to sell its lifeblood: crude oil. Lacking hard currency, Iran suffered from shortages of vital foreign products including medicine and refined oil products. After enduring much hardship, it finally gave in.   

So let's get to the fun bit: can Trump's monetary blockade be evaded?

That hinges on what happens in Europe. The euro, after all, is the world's second-most important medium of exchange. Let's say that Europe is committed to the existing Iran deal. Which means it will have to continue to facilitate Iranian trade in exchange for Iranian nuclear compliance. But how to facilitate this trade when no European bank wants to open accounts for Iranian businesses out of fear of losing access to the U.S. payments system?

One scheme would be to set up a single sanctions-remote bank that conducts all Iranian business. To defang the U.S. Treasury's threat "do business with us, or them, but not both!", this bank should not be dependent on U.S. dollar business. Without a U.S. correspondent, the Treasury's threat to disconnect it from the correspondent network packs no punch. A private European bank that already specializes in Iran business, say like  Hamburg-based Europäisch-Iranische Handelsbank AG, could serve as the sanctions-remote bank. Alternatively, a newly-created government bank that focuses only on Iranian transactions might fill the role.

Let's assume Europäisch-Iranische Handelsbank (EIH) is chosen. Iranian companies that sell crude could open accounts at EIH. How would they get paid? Like other European banks, EIH has a settlement account at the European Central Bank (ECB). Crude oil buyers from all over Europe could have their banks wire payments to EIH's account via the ECB's large value payments sytem, Target2. EIH could also open accounts for companies in India, China, and elsewhere who want to buy Iranian crude oil with euros. In this way, Europäisch-Iranische Handelsbank could theoretically process payments for every drop of Iranian crude, via Target2, and the U.S. Treasury's banking dragnet could do nothing to stop this.

The U.S. could always impose travel bans on EIH bank officials and freeze their U.S. assets. That would surely be annoying, but it wouldn't be decisive. I remember the officials of Canadian-based Sherritt being subject to these sorts of bans many years ago because they did business in Cuba—yet Sherritt gamely trudged on.

Screenshot of Europäisch-Iranische Handelsbank's website. "We are open for business."

There is also the extreme possibility that the U.S. would impose travel bans on the ECB itself, in an effort to force ECB officials to remove Europäisch-Iranische Handelsbank from Target2. Here is one such threat: "Treasury this week designated the governor of Iran's central bank—does any European country think Treasury can't designate their own central bank governor too?" Look, the idea of preventing Mario Draghi from travelling to the U.S., or blocking his U.S. assets, sounds so unhinged that it's not even worth entertaining.

So why was Europäisch-Iranische Handelsbank not used as a sanctions-remote bank during the last monetary blockade? In short, the EU wouldn't allow it. In 2011, it decided to impose its own sanctions on the bank that resulted in EIH's bank accounts being frozen, the banning of all new business, and its removal from the SWIFT and Target2 financial communications networks. According to this report, Chancellor Angela Merkel did so at the urging of Obama.

The key point here is that the U.S. was not itself capable of forcing a sanctions-remote EIH to comply—it had to ask European officials to do the dirty work. Back then, this would have been an easy sell. Obama was respected and had a good working relationship with European leaders. The sanctions had been a carefully negotiated effort that had United Nations support, and therefore broad buy-in, including that of the Russians and Chinese. Trump, on the other hand, has chosen to rudely upset the existing consensus rather than carefully gaining the tacit support of other nations. Unlike the last time around, Merkel can't be asked to take one for the team—there is no team. And as Steve Randy Waldman points out, this time Europe and others have a morally and politically defensible grounds for enabling a work-around.

So rather than shutting down its sanction-remote bank like it did last time, Europe may simply turn a blind eye and allow it to stay open, EIH (or some other government-anointed financial institution)  becoming the go-to bank for conducting Iran's worldwide crude oil business. And if Iran has a means for selling its oil, it may be able to ignore Trump. Thus, the success (or not) of Trump's sanctions is ultimately a European policy variable.

Supposing that Europe caves into pressure from Trump, then India or China could also set-up their own sanctions-remote banks. But these would be in rupee or yuan, neither of which has the wide usefulness of the dollar or euro. Realistically, only Europe can engineer a credible resistance. Here's hoping it does.

Thursday, November 7, 2013

Rates or quantitites or both


Roaming around the econ blogosphere, I often come across what seems to be a sharp divide between those who think monetary policy is all about the manipulation of interest rates and those who think it comes down to varying the quantity of base money. Either side get touchy when the other accuses its favored monetary policy tool, either rates or quantities, of being irrelevant. From my perch, I'll take the middle road between the two camps and say that both are more-or-less right. Either rates, or quantities, or both at the same time, are sufficient instruments of monetary policy. Actual central banks will typically use some combination of rates and quantities to hit their targets, although this hasn't always been the case.

Just to refresh, central banks carry out monetary policy by manipulating the total return that they offer on deposit balances. This return can be broken down into a pecuniary component and a non-pecuniary component. By varying either the pecuniary return, the non-pecuniary return, or both, a central bank is able to create a disequilibrium, as Steve Waldman calls it, which can only be re-equilibrated by a rise or fall in the price level. If the net return on balances is sweetened, banks will flee assets for balances, causing a deflationary fall in prices. If the return is diminished, banks will flock to assets from balances, pushing prices higher and causing inflation.

The pecuniary return on central bank balances is usually provided in the form of a promise to pay interest, or interest on reserves.

The non-pecuniary return, or convenience yield, is a bit more complicated. I've talked about it before. In short, it's sorta like a consumption return. Because central bank balances are useful in settling large payments, and they are rare, banks find it convenient to hold a small quantity of them as a precaution against uncertain events. This unique convenience provided by scarce balances is consumed over time, much like a fire extinguisher's property as a fire-hedge is consumed though never actually mobilized. By increasing or decreasing the quantity of rare balances, a central banker can decrease or increase the value that banks ascribe to this non-pecuniary return.

Now some examples.

The best example of a central bank resorting solely to the quantity tool in order to execute monetary policy is the pre-2008 Federal Reserve. Before 2008, the Fed was not permitted to pay interest on reserves (IOR). This meant that the only return that Fed balances could offer to banks was a non-pecuniary convenience yield, a point that I described here. By adding to or subtracting from the quantity of balances outstanding the Fed could alter their marginal convenience, either rendering them less convenient so as to drive prices up, or more convenient so as to push prices down.

The Bank of Canada is a good example of a central bank that uses both a quantity tool AND an interest rate tool, though not always both at the same time. Since 1991, according to Mark Sadowski, the BoC has paid interest to anyone who holds overnight balances. This is IOR, although in Canada we refer to it as the deposit rate. In addition to paying this pecuniary return, BoC balances also yield a non-pecuniary return. Banks who hold balances enjoy a stream of consumptive returns, or a convenience yield, that stems from both the rarity of BoC balances and their exceptional liquidity.

The best way to "see" how these two returns might be decomposed is by looking at the short term rental market for Bank of Canada balances, or the overnight market. In Canada, this rate is called CORRA, or the Canadian overnight repo rate. A bank will only part with BoC balances overnight if a prospective borrower promises to sufficiently compensate the lending bank for foregone returns. Assuming that the Bank of Canada's deposit rate is 2%, a potential lender will need to be compensated with a pecuniary return of at least 2% in order to dissuade them from socking away balances at the BoC's deposit facility.

The lender will also need to be compensated for doing without the non-pecuniary return on balances. If the overnight lending rate, CORRA, is 2.25%, then we can back out the rate that a lender expects to earn for renting out the non-pecuniary services provided by balances. Since the lender of balances receives the overnight rate of 2.25% from the borrowing bank, and 2% of this can be considered as compensation for foregoing the 2% pecuniary return on balances, that leaves the remaining 0.25% as compensation to the lender for the loss of the non-pecuniary return.

So in our example, the pecuniary and non-pecuniary returns on BoC balances are 2% and 0.25% respectively, for a total return of 2.25%.

The Bank of Canada meets each six weeks, as Nick Rowe points out, upon which it promises to provide banks with a given return on settlement balances, say 2.25%, for the ensuing six week period. When it next meets, the Bank will  introduce whatever changes to this return that are considered necessary for it to hit its monetary policy targets. The BoC can modify the return by changing either the pecuniary component of the total return, the non-pecuniary component, or some combination of both.

Say it modifies only the non-pecuniary component while leaving their pecuniary return untouched. For instance, with the overnight rate trading at 2.25%, the BoC might announce that it will conduct some open market purchases in order to increase the quantity of balances outstanding, while keeping the deposit rate fixed at 2%. By rendering balances less rare, purchases effectively reduce the non-pecuniary return on balances. As a reflection of this shrinking return, the overnight rate may fall a few basis point, or it may fall all the way to 2%. Whatever the case, the rate at which banks now expect to be compensated for foregoing the non-pecuniary return on balances has been diminished. Banks will collectively try to flee out of overpriced clearing balances into assets, pushing up the economy's price level until balances once again provide a competitive return. This sort of pure quantity effect is the story that the quantities camp likes to emphasize.

The story told by the quantities camp is exactly how the BoC loosened policy between April 2009 and May 2010. At the time, the BoC injected $3 billion in balances *without* a corresponding decrease in the deposit rate. The overnight rate fell from 0.5% until it rubbed up against the 0.25% deposit rate. The lack of a gap between the overnight rate and the deposit rate indicated that the injection had reduced the overnight non-pecuniary return on balances to 0%. After all, if lenders still expected to be compensated for forgoing the non-pecuniary return on balances, they would have required that the overnight rate be above the deposit rate.

The BoC's decision to reduce the overnight non-pecuniary return on balances to 0% would have generated a hot potato effect as banks sold off lower-yielding BoC balances for higher-yielding assets, thus pushing prices higher. A change in quantities, not rates, was responsible for the April 2009 to May 2010 loosening.

Likewise, in June 2010, the BoC tightened by using quantities, not rates. Open market sales sucked the $3 billion in excess balances back in, thereby increasing the marginal convenience yield on central bank balances. The deposit rate remained moored at 0.25%, but the overnight rate jumped back to 0.5%, indicating that the overnight non-pecuniary return on balances had increased from 0% to 0.25%. This sweetening in the return on balances would have inspired a portfolio adjustment away from low-yielding assets into high-yielding central bank balances, a process that would have continued until asset prices had fallen far enough to render investors indifferent once again along the margin between BoC deposits and assets. Once again quantities, not rates, did all the hard work.

While the BoC chose to tighten in June 2010 by changing quantities, it could just as easily have tightened by changing rates. For instance, if it had increased the deposit rate to 0.5% while keeping quantities constant, then the net return on balances would have risen to 0.5%, the same return that was generated in the last paragraph's quantities-only scenario. This sweetening in the return on balances would have caused the exact same chain of portfolio adjustments and falling asset prices that the quantities-only scenario caused.

Alternatively, the BoC could have tightened through some combination of quantities AND rates. It might have increased the deposit rate from 0.25% to 0.4%, and then conducted just enough open market sales to increase the non-pecuniary return on balances from 0% to 0.1%, for a total combined return of 0.5%. The ensuing adjustments would have been no different than if tightening had been accomplished by quantities-only or rates-only.

Putting aside the period between April 2009 and June 2010, does the Bank of Canada normally execute monetary policy via rates or quantities? A bit of both, I'd say. At the end of a six week period, say that the Bank wishes to tighten. It typically tightens by announcing a 0.25% rise in its target for the overnight rate combined with a simultaneous 0.25% rise in the deposit rate. The overnight rate, or the rental rate on clearing balances, will typically rise immediately by 0.25%, reflecting the sweetened return on balances.

Did rates or quantities do the heavy lifting in pushing up the return on balances? Put differently, was it the threat that open market sales might increase the convenience yield on balances that tightened policy, or was it the improvement in the deposit rate? I'd argue that the immediate punch would have been delivered by the change in the deposit rate. CORRA, the rental rate on balances, jumped because overnight borrowers of BoC balances were suddenly required to compensate lenders for the higher pecuniary rate being offered by the BoC on its deposit facility. Quantities don't enter into the picture at all, at least not at first. The rates-only camps seems to be the winner.

However, as the ensuing six-week period plays out, market forces will push the rental rate on BoC balances (CORRA) above or below the Bank's target, indicating an improvement or diminution of the total return on balances. The BoC has typically avoided any incremental variation of the deposit rate to ensure that the rental rate, or return on balances, stays true to target over the six week period. Rather, it has always used quantity changes (or the threat thereof) to modify the non-pecuniary return on balances during that period, thereby steering the rental rate back towards target. First rates, and then quantities, conspire together to create Canadian monetary policy.

To sum up, the Bank of Canada's monetary policy is achieved, it would seem, through a complex combination of rate and quantity adjustments. The rates vs. quantities dichotomy that sometimes pops up on the blogosphere simplifies what is really a more nuanced story. Monetary policy can certainly be carried out by focusing on quantity adjustments to the exclusion of rate adjustments (as was the case with the pre-2008 Fed) or vice versa . However, modern central banks like the Bank of Canada use rates, quantities, and some combination of both, to achieve their targets.



Note: The elephant in the room is the zero-lower bound. But the zero lower bound needn't prevent rates or quantities from exerting an influence on prices. On the rates side of the equation, the adoption of a cash-penalizing mechanism along the lines of what Miles Kimball advocates would allow a central bank to safely push rates below zero. As for the quantity side of the equation,  the threat of Sumnerian permanent increases in the monetary base may not be able to reduce the overnight non-pecuniary return on balances once that rate has hit zero, as Steve Waldman points out... but they can certainly reduce the future non-pecuniary returns provided by balances. Reductions in future non-pecuniary returns should be capable of igniting a hot potato effect, albeit a diminishing one, out of balances and into assets.

Friday, April 12, 2013

Consumption isn't a fleeting burst of pleasure, it's a long-lived asset


I've learnt enough about the terms income, savings, consumption, investment, capital, and other major macroeconomic categorizations to pass a basic economics exam. But I've never been a big fan of the style of thinking these terms force on me. Am I just being lazy? I'll lay out my points and give an alternative.

Squarely Rooted recently commented on the somewhat arbitrary nature of the boundary economists set between consumption and saving, opining that travel should be thought of as investment, not consumption. On twinkies as savings, here is Squarely Rooted from an earlier post:
Think of a Twinkie. Twinkies are an odd product; on the one hand, they are a cheap, delicious, unhealthy snack; on the other hand, they are (at least according to legend) practically immortal. So is buying a Twinkie consumption or saving? Does it depend when you eat it? And for those who will say “but Twinkies aren’t an investment, they bear no interest, they just sit there” – so does money under the mattress, and nobody thinks that isn’t saving.
As Squarely Rooted notes, dividing the world into categories allows for discussion, but it also "pre-digests" the world for us. This is what Nick Rowe once called the Borges Problem:
We get very different results depending on how we categorise the world. And sometimes the categories we use are chosen by someone long ago who had a totally different purpose and/or a totally different theory to ours. Our way of seeing the world gets distorted by the dead hand of historical ways of seeing.
This cuts both ways. While the dominant technique of linguistically dividing up the world may distort our way of seeing things, having multiple languages can be equally problematic. Here is Steve Randy Waldman:
Our various allegiances — to schools or tribes or policy ideas — exploit the ambiguity of language to manufacture conflicts, through which we reassure ourselves that we are right and they are wrong. (And no, math doesn’t help much, because we must map it arbitrarily to the same ambiguous language for it to be of any use.) Now I will reassure myself that I am right and they are wrong.
It seems to me that looking at the world through a set of different categorical lenses can give us some great insights, as long as those lenses are coherent. But we need to be aware that there are many different taxonomies. Learning how to recognize each and being able to translate between them will probably save us eons in lost time arguing about semantics.

Back to the basic set of categories under discussion. The typical view is that income is a flow, part of which gets apportioned to consumption. Consumption spending is immediately used up, providing a sudden burst of consumptive joy before disappearing for eternity. The unspent income that remains is defined as savings, and this in turn will be invested with an eye to the future, primarily to fund consumption down the road. Most savings will go into capital, though some of it might leak into money hoardings.  Equipped with these categorizations, economists can go out into the real world and determine what falls in one basket and what falls in the other.

The line being drawn between consumption and savings is based on the distinctions between now vs. later and durable vs. nondurable. Let's try a different way of splitting up the world. Suppose that all consumption goods and experiences are long-lived durable assets. They are forms of income-yielding capital in which one invests. Canned beans bought for my pantry will provide a burst of consumptive joy several months from now. Until then, just having them in a pantry provides a stream of useful services, much like a fire alarm provides utility even though it is never used. These are what Steve Horwitz calls availability services. Both the food we keep in our larders and our fire alarm quell uncertainty and soothe us.

If I take out my employees to the bowling alley, I'm investing in organizational capital. But when I go out to bowl by myself, I'm drawing down my wealth on a one-time shot of consumptive joy, at least according to way the lines are currently drawn. Why not consider both to be long term investments?

Take travel spending. As Squarely Rooted points out, travel is a perpetuity. The travel asset that you might be considering purchasing provides an immediate burst of raw travel experience (not all of it fun), followed by a perpetual flow of memories, experiences, and knowledge that continues till death. Any one who swaps out a security, say Microsoft, from their portfolio for a travel asset has determined that on the margin, the present value of the flow of dividends provided by a voyage exceeds the present value of a flow of Microsoft dividends.

I recently splurged on an expensive meal and did so not only to enjoy the near-term burst of flavours, but also for the long-term flow of returns that my investment would produce, namely the opportunity to remember my experience and talk about it with others. Until I forget my experience a few years from now, it'll have provided me with repeating chain of returns. On the other hand, I'll probably sell out of the gold futures contract I just bought in a month or two. Which of these two swaps is the future-oriented durable one and which is about the here & now?

When someone spends their income on so-called consumption they aren't drawing down their stock of savings. Rather, they're swapping asset x in their portfolio for asset z.  The choice to buy food, travel, and get a haircut isn't a depletion or exhaustion of wealth—it's a portfolio adjustment. Consumption is a stock, not a flow. We can calculate the discounted value of all yields thrown off by a consumption good or experience over time and sum these flows up into a stock value.

We are always conducting asset swaps in order to grope towards portfolios with the highest net present value. Our personal capital is probably our greatest asset. When we earn income, all we've really done is swapped personal capital, time & effort, for a bank-issued liability. We commit to this swap because we estimate that the NPV of additional bank-issued liabilities will more than offset the lost NPV of personal capital.

In equilibrium, the returns on all assets are equilibrated through arbitrage. Investing $10 in cigarettes should provide the same prospective flow of services as investing $10 in a trip to somewhere, $10 on a massage, or $10 in Microsoft. If the yield on some consumptive asset, say a massage, exceeds the economy wide rate of return, individuals will sell their Microsoft shares and go off to the masseuse. This process continues until the price of massages has increased to the point that it no longer makes sense to conduct this arbitrage.

What about the classical bias against so-called consumption? Say that rather than swapping out bank-issued liabilities for Microsoft shares we swap them for a long-lived travel asset. Economists would say that we have high time preference and are sacrificing future consumption for present. Society says we've splurged on silly consumption. It seems to me that as long as we've made this decision by appraising each asset's future earnings stream, who cares if we've chosen Microsoft or travel? All we've done is clocked the two NPVs against each other and purchased the one with the best yield relative to its cost.

Microsoft shares have one advantage over a travel asset. They are liquid. Travel experience can't be resold. In committing your entire portfolio to travel, the problem isn't that you've sacrificed future consumption for present consumption, nor that you've sent money down a black hole. Rather, you've rendered your portfolio less liquid. People who reallocate their portfolios towards travel are asset rich, but liquidity-poor.

While we can't directly remonetize our travel asset, we can indirectly remonetize it. If travel and good food improve our spirits and productivity, then we can recombine these benefits with our labour and resell the total product at a higher price than before. So investing in consumption assets can be a great idea. But in general, it's probably not a good idea to invest everything one owns in illiquid consumption assets. Liquid assets will always be good in a bind.

Getting back to the Borges problem, how does reconceptualizing things this way lead to different results? The old lines between capital, land, and labour aren't so important, nor is the axis between the household and firm. Nor does the distinction between durable and non-durable goods concern us. All we have are millions of yield-generating assets that are constantly moving in or out of individual's portfolios. The main difference between these assets is their swappability, or their liquidity. It's a good platform on which to start thinking about moneyness.

Even if you don't agree with me on any of this, I hope you see how the Borges problem operates. How we choose to linguistically parcel up the world influences the way we take in and sort data, and the data we generate is the base for our actions, policies, and institutions. We've built up an incredibly large edifice based on our initial categorizations. Hopefully we've gotten them right.

Monday, January 28, 2013

Meandering from MMT and the platinum coin to the Bank of Canada and central bank floor systems


This post may get a bit rambling. It's an attempt to tie together a couple of different strands that I've been thinking and reading about.

Modern monetary theory (MMT) in a nutshell, at least as far as I see it, goes something like this. Back in the 1990s a couple of clever guys came up with the idea of a government-provided jobs guarantee. They realized that this program would be seen by the public as an expensive boondoggle requiring sky-high taxes and huge debts. Could they outflank these criticisms by finding another way to fund the jobs guarantee?

To find the funds the early MMTers worked backwards through the labyrinthine relationship between the Federal Reserve and the Treasury. What they claimed to have discovered at the end of their trek was certainly shocking. The US Treasury, they said, funds itself not by the conventional route of taxes and bonds, but by creating and directly spending fiat (i.e. inconvertible) money. Furthermore, it is not only the government's prerogative, but its obligation to spend this money into existence, since people need a stock of fiat money to pay their taxes. Bonds, contrary to what most of us think, are not a sign of government indebtednessrather, they drain spending.

This bit of monetary jiu-jitsu is powerful because it has the ability to disarm people's instinctual aversion to expensive social programs. If all it takes to fund a jobs guarantee is that the government spend money, and debt and taxes are not the great evils we have been trained to think, then why resist it?

Most governments don't create fiat moneytheir central banks do. For a government to have this power, it needs to be able to force its central bank to add new money to the government account. One way to do this is for the government to print up a bond and give it to the central bank. The central bank then credits the government's account for the full amount of the bond, and now the government can spend, say on a jobs guarantee. Alternatively, the transaction can be completed without the transferral of the bondjust have the central bank automatically credit the government's account prior to spending. When the government can require its central bank to create money on its behalf, we say that they are effectively consolidated into one entity.

The earliest MMT tome, Wray's Understanding Modern Money, is very insistent on the consolidated nature of the Fed-Treasury:
"The important thing to notice is that the Treasury spends before and without regard to either previous receipt of taxes or prior bond sales."

"...permanent consolidated government deficits are the theoretical and practical norm in a modern economy... Further, government spending is always financed through creation of fiat money - rather than through tax revenues or bond sales."

"While it appears that the Treasury 'needs' the tax revenue so that it can spend, that is clearly a superficial view... The government certainly does not need to have its own IOU returned before it can spend; rather, the public needs the government's IOU before it can pay taxes."
Now as their critics were quick to point out (see Lavoie, for instance), the relationship between Fed and Treasury is such that the two are not consolidated. The Treasury cannot ask the Fed to credit its account, nor can the Treasury print up a bond and give it to the Fed in exchange for spending power. The only way the Treasury can spend is by moving previously acquired funds that are held in the private banking system into its Federal Reserve accountand the only way it can acquire these funds is through taxes and bond issues. Using the Fed to print money and fund a jobs guarantee program is impossible.

The MMT wish, it would seem, was the father to the thoughtWray's 1998 tome was too hasty in consolidating the Fed and Treasury. MMTers are left with an intriguing theory of how modern money works, yet their theory corresponds to no underlying reality. That doesn't mean that MMT is without some merits. MMTers are hackers. In their efforts to reverse engineer the Fed-Treasury nexus in order to fund their pet project, they've come across plenty of interesting minutiae about monetary operations. MMT papers and blogs go into these details and are worth reading if you want to hone your understanding of the monetary system [just take anything they say about consolidation with a grain of salt].

Has the lack of overlap between Wray 1998's theory and reality stopped MMTers? Not at all. When your theory doesn't describe reality, don't bother changing your theorychange reality so that it conforms to your theory. Enter the platinum coin.

The idea of issuing a trillion dollar platinum coin rose to prominence with the onset of yet another US debt ceiling crisis. The MMT blogs hummed about the coin, a huge coin crescendo grew on Twitter, and the issue went all the way to the White House, which demurred. My hunch is that beating the debt ceiling is only a tertiary motive for MMTer excitement over the platinum coin. Far more important to them is that the platinum coin, if implemented, will effectively consolidate the Fed and Treasury, finally redeeming Wray 1998. This opens to door to their beloved jobs guarantee.

I'm not sure how MMT will evolve, but one thing we'll probably see more of is platinum coin-style activism. Though the rest of world has moved on from the coin, the MMT blogs are still buzzing about it. I'm sure more clever ways to hack the Fed-Treasury nexus will be found, thereby giving the Treasury other routes by which to force Bernanke or whomever follows him to print dollars on demand. These hack-arounds will be publicized. Perhaps a political movement will form. This wouldn't be unique. All sorts parties have formed around monetary ideasGreenbackism, Free Silver, and Social Credit.

I've always wondered why MMTers ignore Canada. Of all the major central banks, the Bank of Canada conforms most fully to the MMT ideal. Consider thisthe Bank of Canada routinely buys bonds directly from the government. The Fed, ECB, and other central banks can only buy government debt on secondary markets. This degree of consolidation goes beyond the ability to participate in bond auctions. The BoC is permitted to lend directly to both the Federal and provincial governments without requiring any security whatsoever. Section 18(j) of the Bank of Canada Act says that the Bank may
make loans to the Government of Canada or the government of any province, but such loans outstanding at any one time shall not, in the case of the Government of Canada, exceed one-third of the estimated revenue of the Government of Canada for its fiscal year, and shall not, in the case of a provincial government, exceed one-fourth of that government’s estimated revenue for its fiscal year, and such loans shall be repaid before the end of the first quarter after the end of the fiscal year of the government that has contracted the loan. 
The US Treasury was once allowed to go into overdraft at the Fed, but this hasn't been permitted since 1981. And even when it could have its account credited, overdraft loans were quite limited in size and duration.


The Bank of Canada is engaged in a very MMT-like operation right now. As I wrote in an earlier post, the Federal government is currently implementing what it calls a prudential liquidity management plan. The BoC typically buys 15% or so of bonds auctioned off by the government. It does so on a non-competitive basis, meaning that it pays the average of all competitive bids submitted to the auction. The traditional 15% allocation is enough to ensure that maturing government debt held in the BoC's portfolio is replaced. In late 2011, the government asked the Bank to fund its prudential liquidity plan by raising its allocation at government bond auctions to 20%. Because this larger allocation is more than enough to make up for maturing debt, the BoC's balance sheet has been growing quite fast. At the same time, the government's account at the BoC, which usually hovers at around $2 billion, now clocks in at $11.5 billion, and by 2014 or so, should rise to $20 billion. Below is a chart of the Bank of Canada's balance sheet. Note the large jumps in government bond holdings (red) and deposits (bottom green).


MMTers might not agree with the prudential liquidity plan, but it surely represents the sort of consolidation they are so anxious to see in the US.

So what happens when the Federal government begins to spend down its prudential balances held at the BoC? Private banks will quickly realize that they have far too many clearing balances and will try to get rid of them. Canada's overnight lending rate will collapse below its target rate. In order to bring the rate back up to target, the BoC can do any number of things.

1) Sell assets from its existing portfolio, thereby withdrawing excess clearing balances.
2) Issue Bank of Canada sterilization bills, which banks will purchase directly from the BoC with excess clearing balances.

Alternatively, the BoC can work together with the government:

3) Ask the government to issue more bonds, depositing the proceeds at the Bank of Canada. Bonds here are fulfilling the money-draining purpose that MMTers like to emphasize.
4) Ask the government to increase taxes, depositing the proceed at the BoC. Just like bonds, taxes would be draining previously spent money.

Finally, the BoC can simply leave this spending unsterilized.

5) Rather than withdraw (i.e. sterilize) balances, let the excess supply drag the overnight rate to the deposit rate. All clearing balances now earn the deposit rate.

The BoC currently maintains a corridor system. During the day, private Canadian banks make and receive hundreds of thousands of payments. By lunch time on a normal day there will be a number of debtor and creditor banks. Debtors can settle with a creditor by borrowing clearing balances from the BoC on a collateralized basis and transferring these balances to their creditor. By the end of the day, the BoC will have typically swallowed up large amounts of collateral as it creates and lends whatever quantity of intraday clearing balances that deficit banks require.

Banks who have borrowed balances to fund a deficit are free to maintain these positions overnight, but are dissuaded from doing so because the rate which they must pay to the BoC, the bank rate, is 0.25% above the market overnight rate. Nor do surplus banks wish to keep the quantities of clearing balances they have received at the BoC overnight, since the deposit rate is 0.25% below the market rate. As a result, those banks holding clearing balances are incentivized to transfer them to those banks that are in debt to the BoC. This transfer allows the deficit banks to pay back their intraday debts to the BoC and get their collateral back. In short, BoC balances are not attractive to maintain so they reflux back to the Bank of Canada. A good visual aid is to think of the central bank as a blowfish: it blows up during the day and sucks itself back in at night when it isn't needed.

If it turns to this last solution, the Bank of Canada will be throwing away its corridor system and adopting a floor system. Steve Waldman generated plenty of discussion on his recent series of blog posts on floor systems. As the Federal government spends down its $20 billion prudential balance at the BoC, all private banks will end up holding excess clearing balances. There is no way for them to contract among each other to remove this excess. Only one option remains to the bankshold these balances overnight and receive the deposit rate. The Bank of Canada would be a permanently inflated blowfish.

If it adopts a floor, the BoC wouldn't be the first. The Federal Reserve stumbled its way into a floor system in 2008 by injecting so many reserves that it was unable to sterilize them. But a floor system is by no means universally accidental. The Reserve Bank of New Zealand chose to adopt a floor in 2006. When it maintained a corridor, the RBNZ began to notice signs of stress in the banking system that it traced to insufficient liquidity. Evidence included delayed or 'just-in-time' payments, failed settlement, collateral hoarding, and increasing use of the bank's overnight lending facility.

Between July and October 2006, the RBNZ moved to a fully "cashed up" system by injecting $7 billion worth of settlement cash on which it paid interest. Banks had typically required $3-5 billion worth of intraday credit in order to meet their payment requirements. Now that there was a permanent $7 billion worth of balances, there was no longer any need for banks to get intraday loans from the RBNZ, nor scramble for collateral to qualify for these loans. Banks ceased waiting till the end of the day to make payments. The time of day when 50% of all payments were completed was moved up by two hours compared to when the corridor system was in place. (See the RBNZ's account of this here.) Flattening out settlement over a trading day can be desirable since settlement delays, especially if they spread from participant to participant, can be costly.

The Bank of Canada has toyed with an RBNZ-style cashed up system. In response to the credit crisis, in May 2009 the BoC injected $3 billion of excess settlement balances into the clearing system, pushing the overnight rate down to the Bank's deposit rate. This excess was removed in June 2010, a year later. We know from a presentation by former Deputy BoC Governor David Longworth that much like New Zealand, Canadian payments tended to be made earlier in the day during the period between May 2009 and June 2010.  If the Federal government's prudential balances at the BoC are spent down, a decision to use the occasion to move to a floor system rather than sterilizing this spending would not be without precedent or merit.

[If you're interested on this subject, this paper relates the US experience with excess reserves. Much like Canada and New Zealand, US payments after the onset of excess reserves were more evenly distributed throughout the day.]

Back to MMT, where this whole ramble started. Much a large corporate conglomerate, MMT might benefit from being dismantled. Beholden to the jobs guarantee division, the monetary division has made unrealistic claims about the nature of consolidation. Now it is turning to monetary activism. The monetary division would be less conflicted, and therefore be taken more seriously, if it was spun off from its parent. As separate corporations, the jobs guarantee folks could focus on lobbying governments like Canada to use their central banks to fund social programs, freeing the monetary folks to focus on how monetary systems actually work. Why not deconsolidate MMT?

Saturday, December 31, 2011

ECB, NCBs, and arbitrage yet again

Tyler Cowen posts again on the theory that banks are using the ECB's new and broader facilities for arbitrage by buying risky sovereign debt, thereby driving interest rates down.

There is another explanation for the fall in rates, see my comment below:

The new ECB collateral rules dramatically increase the quantity of assets that banks can submit to the ECB in order to get ECB clearing balances. Bank loans are now allowed, so are lower quality ABS. This means that it is less likely that the national governments will have to guarantee local bank debt. This was a real problem in Greece and Ireland, for instance, for the local banks had run out of assets to submit to the ECB. Instead, banks were creating debts amongst each other and having the government guarantee these debts, before submitting them to the ECB as collateral.

Since private non-marketable debt can now be submitted to the ECB, governments will no longer be required to covertly bail out their banks by guaranteeing intra-bank debts. That means that euro government debt is now a lot safer, and explains why yields are falling. So you can use an ECB arbitrage theory to explain the data, but there are alternatives.


Interfluidity also chimes in on The Eurozone’s policy breakthrough? My comment below:

I think the ECB’s policy change is designed to stop the intra-European bank run currently in effect, and not to support various governments. The arbitrage bit that Cowen is writing about is either a red herring or simply incidental.

Because of the Eoro area clearing & settlement mechanism, banks subject to capital flight need to submit collateral to their NCB on a continuing basis to deal with a bank run.

By lending settlement balances for three years and, more importantly, accepting lower quality ABS and bank loans as collateral, the ECB is committing NCBs to averting all degrees of bank runs from member banks. Hopefully this flexing of its muscles is enough to stop the run.



See this older blog post too.